Alright, let's get some context in here. Rosemary, a medical journalist friend of mine, co-wrote the following article:
Scientists Have Utterly Failed to Prove that the Coronavirus Fulfills Koch’s Postulates | Off Guardian
In the article she argues (not surprisingly, given the title of the article) that the Cov 2 Virus hasn't passed the test of Koch's Postulates.
Now, I will acknowledge that in the comments to the article, one poster wrote:
**
The limitations of Koch’s criteria are even more obvious when we consider viral diseases, which were not yet discovered when the postulates were formulated. Thomas Rivers, who has been called the ‘father of modern virology’, wrote:
‘‘It is unfortunate that so many workers blindly followed the rules, because Koch himself quickly realized that in certain instances all the conditions could not be met. . . . Thus, in regard to certain diseases, particularly those caused by viruses, the blind adherence to Koch’s postulates may act as a hindrance instead of an aid.’’
Many viruses do not cause illness in all infected individuals, a requirement of postulate #1. An example is poliovirus, which causes paralytic disease in about 1% of those infected. Further compromising postulate #1 is the fact that infection with the same virus may lead to markedly different diseases, while different viruses may cause the same disease. Postulates #2 and #3 cannot be fulfilled for viruses that do not replicate in cell culture, or for which a suitable animal model has not been identified.
https://www.virology.ws/2010/01/22/kochs-postulates-in-the-21st-century/
**
Would this be the stance of many posters here?