I’m too lazy to look up actual stats, but assuming that about 80% (?) of that population is fully vaccinated….with the numbers above….then those 80% vaccinated account for less than 60% of new cases, & the 20% of the population accounts for more than 40% of new cases.
Just mathing is all. Doesn’t this prove that the vaccine’s are effective in decreasing the odds of catching this pestilence? Not addressing the severity of symptoms or what have you, but just the 1591/2736 thing.
If the vaccine wasn’t effective, then the 80% of the population fully vaccinated should account for about 80% of new cases, & the 20% of the population that’s unvaccinated should account for about 20% of new cases, right?