Luke has Jesus misquoting Isaiah. The passage in Isaiah 61 is (KJV):
1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; 2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;
The passage in Luke 4 is (also KJV):
18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, 19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
Note there's nothing in Isaiah about restoring sight to the blind or liberating those that are bruised. Moreover, analysis of the style and content of Isaiah by biblical scholars indicates it was written by three people over the space of several centuries, and the passage cited was written by the third of them. He's not talking about Jesus, that's about seven centuries in the future, he's talking about himself, and the apocalyptic bits in Isaiah are about the Babylonian and Assyrian threats to the nations of Israel and Judah at the time, not the Roman overlordship of Jesus' time. The passage in Luke is simply an insertion--one of many in the New Testament--to make Jesus appear to be fulfilling certain Old Testament prophecies. Luke's gospel was written some time around 70-80 C.E. Whoever Luke was (he nowhere names himself in this gospel) he could not possibly have met Jesus, so that's certainly not an eye witness account, at best he's just recounting an oral tradition, at worst he just made it up.
In other words, what you're assuming in making your didactic argument in this thread is not true. For what it's worth though, that passage in Luke is the only indication in the Bible that Jesus could read.
1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; 2 To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;
The passage in Luke 4 is (also KJV):
18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, 19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
Note there's nothing in Isaiah about restoring sight to the blind or liberating those that are bruised. Moreover, analysis of the style and content of Isaiah by biblical scholars indicates it was written by three people over the space of several centuries, and the passage cited was written by the third of them. He's not talking about Jesus, that's about seven centuries in the future, he's talking about himself, and the apocalyptic bits in Isaiah are about the Babylonian and Assyrian threats to the nations of Israel and Judah at the time, not the Roman overlordship of Jesus' time. The passage in Luke is simply an insertion--one of many in the New Testament--to make Jesus appear to be fulfilling certain Old Testament prophecies. Luke's gospel was written some time around 70-80 C.E. Whoever Luke was (he nowhere names himself in this gospel) he could not possibly have met Jesus, so that's certainly not an eye witness account, at best he's just recounting an oral tradition, at worst he just made it up.
In other words, what you're assuming in making your didactic argument in this thread is not true. For what it's worth though, that passage in Luke is the only indication in the Bible that Jesus could read.
