If that's really true I'm sad that you're even in the country, rodent anatomyy notwithstanding.
We can all read here, obviously. (For some , writing is another story

)
Rights are functions of human thought and agreement. How and why they should exist or come to exist or be upheld or enforced is a complex issue open to many interpretations. It is clear to me that they can only exist by consensus - and that there will always be people who scorn the rights of others.
deTouqueville : the tyranny of the majority.
Doesn't work.
Imagine the Confederate States. Was there a consensus that slavery was a violation of human rights?
No.
Imagine Nazi Germany (phuck Godwin) Was there a consensus that that the Holocaust was a violation of human rights?
No.
Imagine Communist China. Was there a consensus that the Cultural Revolution was a violation of human rights? (It killed somewhere between 40 and ninety million people)
No.
I could go on for pages, but you get my point. If you leave rights to the state, then rights do not exist, they are merely momentary privileges.
Even those guys that penned the Bill of Rights of 1689 knew better than to pretend the document granted rights.........instead they merely recognized "ancient rights". The Americans as well got it correct; rights are inherent, granted by natural law.
Originally Posted by
Hoid
Rights do exist at the pleasure of the state.
Only an idiot believes that. Rights are often violated by the state, they are not granted by the state. Please see above. According to your theory, no rights were violated in the slave states of the USA, in the Chinese mass murderers, or in the German genocide.
How ridiculous is that?
BTW, you are still ignored, I saw this quoted in VIBC's post. Don't bother answering.