So we compare crime stats in two jurisdictions and find one is higher than the other. What does that prove? Could it be that there are more policemen in one? Could it mean one has tougher judges or more corrupt lawyers? Could it mean that some jurisdictions are tougher at enforcing the laws than others? Does it mean one area has more criminals? Maybe the laws are interpretted a little differently. Are the same people collecting the stats in the two jurisdictions with the same set of criteria? Does anyone have a viable answer?