Which, as I explained to you before, totally discredits the graph, because people are killed with other weapons, and GUN MURDER RATES do not indicate anything except GUN MURDER RATES awlone which completely fails to show the effect of high levels of gun ownership on levels of violence.
GUN MURDER RATES are a malicious attempt at manipulation of data.
again, the comparison is on that very point - gun murder rates! I've been trying to get you to bite on the posts I've put forward that clearly show there is no drop in gun violence... and now you have the gall to suggest the comparison is flawed because you want to posit some "imaginary number/influence" that gun ownership has on gun murder rates/violence... presumably lowering them in your view! I suggest you move off your raised point... you've now made it several times... and attempt to put forward study/data that qualifies your suggestion/claim that gun ownership..... what... lowers gun murder rates... lowers gun related violence??? Again, I've already put forward posts that speak to gun related violence not being reduced/lessened... of course, YOU WON"T TOUCH THOSE POSTS!!! Equally, I've put forward the posts that speak to medical advances and improved emergency/trauma care having an influence on helping to reduce gun related murders... and I've repeated reference to this discussion theme several times in an attempt to "bait out" into discussing it/them... again, of course, YOU WON'T TOUCH THOSE POSTS!!! Talk about, as you say, "a malicious attempt (YOUR'S) at manipulation of data"!
Yeah that is right. In a graph that shows the United States has the worst GUN MURDER RATE it is of course perfectly legitimate to eliminate the nation with a worse GUN MURDER RATE because....well, because their GUN MURDER RATE is worse than that of the USA.
the reason was provided as to why Mexico was excluded; again, drug cartel wars over the last decade+. I mean, Mexico could have been included on the graph... but it certainly would have skewed the graph scale given it's rate is 3-times higher than that of the next highest country, the U.S. Instead of that, the author fully disclosed he chose not to include Mexico on the graph, gave the gun murder rate for Mexico, stated it was 3 times that of the U.S. rate and indicated that it was due to the long-standing drug wars in Mexico. Fully disclosed... which didn't, of course, temper yet another of your grand conspiracy claims on the exclusion of Mexico from the graph! Perhaps instead of posturing your fake outrage at this, why not step-up and explain the legitimacy you believe exists in comparing the Gun Murder Rates of all OECD countries to that of Mexico?