Assuming one is to commit an act of infidelity and they were to ensure no transmission of STD's or extramarital pregnancies, what is morally wrong with it? Isn't it just like any other form of deceit? Assuming no one knows and no harm (STD's or pregnancies) is done, how is it any different than any other form of lying? One could argue that lying is immoral, but is it really? Can you be so absolute about lying?
I ask this not to imply that I engage in this behaviour, but because if you are one who believes in the relativistic nature of morality, you would likely have a hard time supporting the claim that it's the ultimate marital sin.
I ask this not to imply that I engage in this behaviour, but because if you are one who believes in the relativistic nature of morality, you would likely have a hard time supporting the claim that it's the ultimate marital sin.